I am new to modes really=RobJamGun , seems you are asking two questions and both would be hard to explain, seems your wondering why a major mode can sounds good over Minor chord
There are some things that theory can explain but this is more a history question and it has to do with how the blues was made and how it affected music of today.
So if it sounds good it is good, The blue changed music people who did not even read or write words made this stuff up so that's why the if it sounds good it is good is said so much.
For years a wondered why does the minor pentatonic sound good over major chords because it does is the answer,
I am sure that theres is a reason other than it sounds good.
The 2and 6 note of the major scale are removed which makes it sound
good over more chords.
Not sure your level but when you learn a scale like the pentatonic you need to see the major scale it comes from and you need to see the chords in the scale.
Sure of the above not sure of below this so pay it no mind may confuse a person more
I say again I don't have all answers I can see there is something going on with the 2 5 6 7 chord tones.
Since I play by ear I have seen a pattern in my studies when ever I study a scale or mode really seems that by flatting o sharpening one or more of these tones makes a new mode or scale.
If I find the pattern I will share it LOL
Hope I have helped some.
I was practicing the phrygian mode playing a chord progression of Eminor Aminor and B mayor
using the E Phrygian mode over the three chords it sounded great but i was wondering is that good? is it good using a E phryian over a Eminor, A minor and Bmayor chords or do i have to use a a E phryian for the Eminor a A phrygian for the Aminor and the B Phrygian for the B mayor